First Baseman Obstruction

Question
QUESTION: Runners on 1st & 2nd with no outs.  Batter hits a base hit to RF.  Ball gets slightly by F9 (no play at 1B).  As the batter is attempting to round 1B, she collides with F3, who is standing on the bag, and the both go to the ground.  The throw from RF goes home, but by the time the batter gets untangled, it's too late to go to second, so she goes back to 1B.  Umpire lifted the arm for obstruction, but left her at 1B.  The plate Ump explained the runner was protected between the bases, but because she did not continue to 2B, she was not awarded 2B.  I thought that if the ump felt she would have made 2B w/o the obstruction, the fact that she did not continue was irrelevant.

Right call??

Also, since the runner could not go to 2B due to the obstruction, there was no need to cut off the throw from RF.  Any impact on the call?

ANSWER: Hi Ron,

with obstruction we award the base(s) the runner would have made in our judgment had there not been obstruction.  The runner need not "try" to advance to that base.

Nope R1 is on their own

Mark

---------- FOLLOW-UP ----------

QUESTION: Hi Mark,

Thanks for the quick response.  Just a clarification to settle a debate among three coaches with nothing better to do...I read your response to mean that the batter/runner does not need to be put out at 2B in order to be awarded the base for obstruction.  Correct?

Thanks again.

Answer
Hi Ron,

that is correct plus they need not attempt to advance any further, let's see...collision as rounding 1st w/ F3 in the way...on the ground...roll around a little...get up...see the ball is about to come back in...retreat to 1st.  when play ceases, umpire awards 2nd....It is our judgment what base (if any) they would have made and then we put them there.

Or take it even further...gapper to the 350' fence, collision as above but w/ the B1's knee 90' to the leg...he ain't goin' anywhere....the award could be 3rd or even home.


Ok 1 more thing since you have nothing better to do, neither do I....2out....R1 on 2nd....base hit to the outfield, R1 is obstructed by f6 and has not yet reached home plate when B1 is tagged out at 2nd....if the umpire felt that R1 would have scored before the tag at 2nd had he not be obstructed we score the run.  
Think they'll be bitchin' on that call????

mark