Force play

Question
Bases loaded, no outs.  One hopper to the 3rd baseman.  He touches 3B.  The runner at third never left the bag.  I am assuming the runner coming from second is foreced out at 3b.  But the runner at 3B now has the right to occupy 3B after the fielder touches it so he is safe.  Does that sound right?

Answer
Afternoon...great question....You are correct, in a perfect world he should have touched the base runner first, then stepped on the bag, & then gotten a triple play at second or first.  The force at third base was for the runner coming to that bag, had nothing to do w/ the player occupying it already.

Thanks again for the question....

Andy